I'm neither expert nor experienced in this category of international law. BUT !
If it's a difference of opinion that straddles a recognized international border, then it becomes a matter of international law, right?
Is there rational reason to think international law should not mirror laws within nations?
If I understand law as it is practiced in my nation, if a contract is signed under duress it is not legally binding.
If any '94 Budapest Memorandum signatories signed under duress, - OR -
had reason to belief their refusal to consent would result in reprisal,
then that contract can't be enforced against them. Right?
AND
Ukraine has not received the Ukrainian security assured them, Ukrainian borders would be respected. [thank you S2 #292]
In exchange Ukraine surrendered Soviet nukes? & the memorandum was signed?
Ukraine not merely betrayed.
The resultant casualty toll there, a bloodbath. Rational reason to not rely on other nations for national security.
Casualties in the Russo-Ukrainian War
include six deaths during the 2014 annexation of Crimea by the Russian Federation, 14,200–14,400 military and civilian deaths during the War in Donbas,
and between 400,000 and 1.5 million estimated casualties (killed and wounded) during the Russian invasion of Ukraine from 24 February 2022 to November 2025.
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
If international contract, "Memorandum" is not enforceable for Ukraine's benefit, it cannot be enforced for Ukraine's detriment. Right?
If Ukraine didn't have internationally acknowledged legitimate need for Ukrainian military self-protection from Russian military aggression,
it has now. Right?
The notion that prior treaty obligation compels a nation to receive military invasion without viable means to preserve its own sovereignty,
sovereignty as it existed when the agreement was signed, is absurd.